UPSC (Union Public Service Commission) NDA (National Defense Academy) Naval Academy (NA) Examination (I), 2017

EXAMINATION NOTICE NO.3/2017-NDA-I                                         DATED 18.01.2017

(Last Date for Submission of Applications: 10.02.2017)

NATIONAL DEFENCE ACADEMY & NAVAL ACADEMY EXAMINATION (I), 2017

(CommissionÔs Website upsc.gov.in)

 

IMPORTANT

1. CANDIDATES TO ENSURE THEIR ELIGIBILITY FOR THE EXAMINATION:

The candidates applying for the examination should ensure that they fulfil all the

eligibility conditions for admission to the Examination.  Their admission at all the

stages of the examination will be purely provisional subject to satisfying the

prescribed eligibility conditions.

Mere issue of Admission Certificate to the candidate will not imply that his

candidature has been finally cleared by the Commission.

Verification of eligibility conditions with reference to original documents is taken up

only after the candidate has qualified for interview/Personality Test.

2. HOW TO APPLY

Candidates are required to apply online by using the website upsconline.nic.in Brief

instructions for filling up the online Application Form have been given in the

Appendix-II.  Detailed instructions are available on the above mentioned website.

3. LAST DATE FOR SUBMISSION OF APPLICATIONS:

The Online Applications can be filled upto 10th February, 2017 till 6.00 PM.

4. The eligible candidates shall be issued an e-Admit Card three weeks before the

commencement of the examination.  The e-Admit Card will be made available on

the UPSC website (upsc.gov.in) for being downloaded by candidates.  No Admit

Card will be sent by post.  All the applicants are required to provide valid & active

e-mail id while filling up online application form as the Commission may use

electronic mode for contacting them.

 

5. PENALITY FOR WRONG ANSWERS:

Candidates should note that there will be penalty (Negative Marking) for wrong

answers marked by a candidate in the Objective Type Question Papers.

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6. For both writing and marking answers in the OMR sheet (Answer Sheet)

candidates must use black ball pen only Pens with any other colour are

prohibited.  Do not use Pencil or Ink pen.  Candidates should note that any

omission/mistake/discrepancy in encoding/filling of details in the OMR answer

sheet especially with regard to Roll Number and Test Booklet Series Code will

render the answer sheet liable for rejection.  Candidates are further advised to

read carefully the ÑSpecial InstructionsÒ contained in Appendix-III of the

Notice.

 

7. FACILITATION COUNTER FOR GUIDANCE OF CANDIDATES:

In case of any guidances/information/clarification regarding their application,

candidature etc. candidates can contact UPSCÔs Facilitation Counter near Gate ÓCÔ

of its campus in person or over Telephone No.011-23385271/011-23381125/011-

23098543 on working days between 10.00 hrs. to 17.00 hrs.

8. MOBILE PHONES BANNED:

 

(a) Mobiles phones, pagers/bluetooth or any other communication devices are not

allowed inside the premises where the examination is being conducted.  Any

infringement of these instructions shall entail disciplinary action including ban

from future examinations.

(b) Candidates are advised in their own interest not to bring any of the banned items

including mobile phones/pagers/bluetooth or any valuable/costly items to the

venue of the examination as arrangements for safe keeping cannot be assured.

Commission will not be responsible for any loss in this regard.

CANDIDATES ARE REQUIRED TO APPLY ONLINE AT upsconline.nic.in ONLY. 

NO OTHER MODE IS ALLOWED FOR SUBMISSION OF APPLICATION.

F.No.7/2/2016.E.1(B): An Examination will be conducted by the Union Public Service

Commission on 23rd April, 2017 for admission to the Army, Navy and Air Force

wings of the NDA for the 139th Course, and for the 101st Indian Naval Academy

Course (INAC) commencing from 2nd  January, 2018.

The date of holding the examination as mentioned above is liable to be changed at

the discretion of the Commission.

The approximate number of vacancies to be filled on the results of this examination

will be as under :Ð

National Defence Academy :         335 (208 for Army, 55 for Navy

and 72 for Air Force)

Naval Academy    :         55

(10+2 Cadet Entry Scheme)

 Total              :        390

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Vacancies are provisional and may be changed depending on the availability

of training capacity of National Defence Academy and Indian Naval

Academy.

N.B. (i) A candidate is required to specify clearly in the Online Application

Form the Services for which he wishes to be considered in the order of his

preference [1 to 4]. He is also advised to indicate as many preferences as he

wishes to opt so that having regard to his rank in the order of merit due

consideration can be given to his preferences when making appointments.

(ii) Candidates should note that they will be considered for appointment

to those services only for which they express their preferences and for no

other service(s). No request for addition/alteration in the preferences

already indicated by a candidate in his application will be entertained by

the Commission.

(iii) Admission to the above courses will be made on the results of the

written examination to be conducted by the Commission followed by

intelligence and personality test by the Services Selection Board of

candidates who qualify in the written examination.

2. CENTRES OF EXAMINATION:

The Examination will be held at the following Centres :

Agartala, Ahmedabad, Aizawl, Allahabad, Bengaluru, Bareilly, Bhopal,

Chandigarh, Chennai, Cuttack, Dehradun, Delhi, Dharwad, Dispur, Gangtok,

Hyderabad, Imphal, Itanagar, Jaipur, Jammu, Jorhat, Kochi, Kohima, Kolkata,

Lucknow, Madurai, Mumbai, Nagpur, Panaji (Goa), Patna, Port Blair, Raipur,

Ranchi, Sambalpur, Shillong, Shimla, Srinagar, Thiruvananthapuram,

Tirupati, Udaipur and Vishakhapatnam.

Applicants should note that there will be a ceiling on the number of

candidates allotted to each of the centres except Chennai, Dispur, Kolkata and

Nagpur. Allotment of Centres will be on the first-apply-first-allot basis and

once the capacity of a particular centre is attained, the same will be frozen.

Applicants, who cannot get a centre of their choice due to ceiling, will be

required to choose a Centre from the remaining ones. Applicants are, thus,

advised that they may apply early so that they could get a Centre of their

choice.

N.B. : Notwithstanding the aforesaid provision, Commission reserves the

right to change the Centres at their discretion if the situation demands.

Candidates admitted to the examination will be informed of the time table

and place or places of examination. Candidates should note that no request

for change of centre will be granted.

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3. CONDITIONS OF ELIGIBILITY :

(a) Nationality : A candidate must either be :

(i) a citizen of India, or

(ii) a subject of Bhutan, or

(iii) a subject of Nepal, or

(iv) a Tibetan refugee who came over to India before the 1st January, 1962

with the intention of permanently settling in India, or

(v)   a person of Indian origin who has migrated from Pakistan, Burma, Sri

Lanka and East African Countries of Kenya, Uganda, the United Republic of

Tanzania, Zambia, Malawi, Zaire and Ethiopia or Vietnam with the intention

of permanently settling in India.

Provided that a candidate belonging to categories (ii), (iii), (iv) and (v)

above shall be a person in whose favour a certificate of eligibility has been

issued by the Government of India.

Certificate of eligibility will not, however, be necessary in the case of

candidates who are Gorkha subjects of Nepal.

(b) Age Limits, Sex and Marital Status :

Only unmarried male candidates born not earlier than 02nd July, 1998 and not

later than 1st July, 2001 are eligible.

The date of birth accepted by the Commission is that entered in the

Matriculation or Secondary School Leaving Certificate or in a certificate

recognised by an Indian University as equivalent to Matriculation or in an

extract from a Register of Matriculates maintained by a University which

must be certified by the proper authority of the University or in the Higher

Secondary or an equivalent examination certificates. These certificates are

required to be submitted only after the declaration of the result of the written

part of the examination. No other document relating to age like horoscopes,

affidavits, birth extracts from Municipal Corporation, service records and the

like will be accepted. The expression Matriculation/Higher Secondary

Examination Certificate in this part of the instruction includes the alternative

certificates mentioned above.

NOTE 1 : Candidates should note that only the date of birth as recorded in

the Matriculation/Higher Secondary Examination Certificate available or an

equivalent certificate on the date of submission of applications will be

accepted by the Commission and no subsequent request for its change will be

considered or granted.

NOTE 2 : Candidates should also note that once a date of birth has been

claimed by them and entered in the records of the Commission for the

purpose of admission to an Examination, no change will be allowed

subsequently or at any subsequent examination on any ground whatsoever.

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NOTE 3 : The candidates should exercise due care while entering their date of

birth in the respective column of the Online Application Form for the

Examination. If on verification at any subsequent stage any variation is found

in their date of birth from the one entered in their Matriculation or equivalent

Examination certificate, disciplinary action will be taken against them by the

Commission under the Rules.

NOTE 4 : Candidates must undertake not to marry until they complete their

full training. A candidate who marries subsequent to the date of his

application though successful at this or any subsequent Examination will not

be selected for training. A candidate who marries during training shall be

discharged and will be liable to refund all expenditure incurred on him by the

Government.

(c) Educational Qualifications:

(i) For Army Wing of National Defence Academy :Ð12th Class pass of the

10+2 pattern of School Education or equivalent examination conducted by a

State Education Board or a University.

(ii) For Air Force and Naval Wings of National Defence Academy and for

the 10+2 Cadet Entry Scheme at the Indian Naval Academy :Ð12th Class

pass of the 10+2 pattern of School Education or equivalent with Physics and

Mathematics conducted by a State Education Board or a University.

Candidates who are appearing in the 12th Class under the 10+2 pattern of

School Education or equivalent examination can also apply for this

examination.

Such candidates who qualify the SSB interview but could not produce

Matriculation/10+2 or equivalent certificate in original at the time of SSB

interview should forward duly self attested Photocopies to ÓDirectorate

General of Recruiting, Army HQ, West Block.III, R.K. Puram, New Delhi-

110066Ô and for Naval Academy candidates to ÓNaval Headquarters, DMPR,

OI&R Section, Room No. 204, ÓCÔ Wing, Sena Bhavan, New Delhi-110011Ô by

22nd December, 2017 failing which their candidature will be cancelled. All

other candidates who have produced their Matriculation and 10+2 pass or

equivalent certificates in original at the time of attending the SSB interview

and have got the same verified by the SSB authorities are not required to

submit the same to Army HQ or Naval HQ as the case may be. Certificates in

original issued by the Principals of the Institutions are also acceptable in cases

where Boards/Universities have not yet issued certificates. Certified true

copies/photostate copies of such certificates will not be accepted.

In exceptional cases the Commission may treat a candidate, who does not

possess any of the qualifications prescribed in this rule as educationally

qualified provided that he possesses qualifications, the standard of which in

the opinion of the Commission, justifies his admission to the examination.

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NOTE 1 : Candidates appearing in the 11th class exam are not eligible for this

examination.

NOTE 2 : Those candidates who have yet to qualify in the 12th class or

equivalent examination and are allowed to appear in the UPSC Examination

should note that this is only a special concession given to them. They are

required to submit proof of passing the 12th class or equivalent examination

by the prescribed date (i.e. 22nd December, 2017) and no request for extending

this date will be entertained on the grounds of late conduct of

Board/University Examination, delay in declaration of results or any other

ground whatsoever.

NOTE 3 : Candidates who are debarred by the Ministry of Defence from

holding any type of Commission in the Defence Services shall not be eligible

for admission to the examination and if admitted, their candidature will be

cancelled.

NOTE 4 : Those candidates who have failed INSB/PABT earlier are not

eligible for Air Force.

(d) Physical Standards:

Candidates must be physically fit according to physical standards for

admission to National Defence Academy and Naval Academy Examination

(I), 2017 as per guidelines given in Appendix-IV.

(e) A candidate who has resigned or withdrawn on disciplinary grounds from

any of the training academies of Armed Forces is not eligible to apply.

4. FEE

Candidates (excepting SC/ST candidates/Sons of JCOs/NCOs/ORs specified

in Note 2 below who are exempted from payment of fee) are required to pay a

fee of Rs. 100/- (Rupees one hundred only) either by depositing the money in

any Branch of SBI by cash, or by using net banking facility of State Bank of

India/State Bank of Bikaner & Jaipur/State Bank of Hyderabad/State Bank of

Mysore/State Bank of Patiala/State Bank of Travancore or by using

Visa/MasterCard Credit/Debit Card.

N.B. 1 :  Applicants who opt for ÑPay by CashÒ mode, should print the

system generated Pay-in-slip during Part-II registration and deposit the fee at

the counter of SBI Branch on the next working day only.  ÑPay by CashÒ

mode option will be deactivated at 23.59 hours of 09.02.2017 i.e. one day

before the closing date; however, applicants who have generated their Pay-

in-slip before it is de-activated may pay at the counter of SBI Branch during

banking hours on the closing date.  Such applicants who are unable to pay by

cash on the closing date i.e. during banking hours at SBI Branch, for reason

whatsoever,  even if holding a valid Pay-in-Slip, will have no other offline

option but to opt for online Debit/Credit Card or Internet Banking Payment

mode on the closing date i.e. till 6.00 P.M. of 10.02.2017.

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N.B. 2 : Candidates should note that payment of examination fee can be made

only through the modes prescribed above. Payment of fee through any other

mode is neither valid nor acceptable. Applications submitted without the

prescribed fee/mode (unless remission of fee is claimed) shall be summarily

rejected.

N.B. 3 : Fee once paid shall not be refunded under any circumstances nor can

the fee be held in reserve for any other examination or selection.

N.B. 4 : For the applicants in whose case payments details have not been

received from the bank, they will be treated as fictitious payment cases and

their applications will be rejected in the first instance. A list of all such

applicants shall be made available on the Commission’s website within two

weeks after the last day of submission of online application. The applicants

shall be required to submit the proof of their fee payment within 10 days from

the date of such communication either by hand or by speed post to the

Commission. On receipt of documentary proof, genuine fee payment cases

will be considered and their applications will be revived, if they are otherwise

eligible.

 

NOTE-1 : Candidates belonging to Scheduled Castes/Scheduled Tribes and

those specified in Note 2 below are not required to pay any fee. No fee

exemption is, however, available to OBC candidates and they are required to

pay the full prescribed fee.

NOTE-2 : The sons of serving/ex-Junior Commissioned Officers/Non-

Commissioned Officers/Other Ranks of Army and equivalent ranks in the

Indian Navy/Indian Air Force are also not required to pay the prescribed fee

if they are studying in Military School (formerly known as King George’s

School)/Sainik School run by Sainik Schools Society.

[N.B. : A certificate of eligibility for fee exemption is required to be

obtained by all such candidates from the Principals concerned individually

and produced for verification at the time of SSB Test/Interview by the

candidates who are declared qualified for the SSB Test/Interview.]

5. HOW TO APPLY:

Candidates are required to apply Online by using the website

upsconline.nic.in Detailed instructions for filling up online applications are

available on the above-mentioned website.

NOTE-1 : The applicants are advised to submit only single application;

however if due to any unavoidable situation, if he submits another/multiple

applications, then he must ensure that application with the higher RID is

complete in all respects like applicants’ details, examination centre,

photograph, signature, fee etc. The applicants who are submitting multiple

applications should note that only the applications with higher RID

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(Registration ID) shall be entertained by the Commission and fee paid against

one RID shall not be adjusted against any other RID.

NOTE-2 : All candidates whether already in Government Service including

candidates serving in the Armed Forces, Sailors (including boys and artificers

apprentices) of the Indian Navy, Cadets of Rashtriya Indian Military College

(previously known as Sainik School, Dehradun), Students of Military Schools

(formerly known as King George’s Schools) and Sainik Schools run by Sainik

Schools Society, Government owned industrial undertakings or other similar

organizations or in private employment should apply online direct to the

Commission.

N.B. (a) Persons already in Government Service, whether in permanent or

temporary capacity or as work charged employees other than casual or daily

rated employees or those serving under the Public Enterprises; (b) Candidates

serving in the Armed Forces, Sailors (including boys and artificers

apprentices) of the Indian Navy; and (c) Cadets of Rashtriya Indian Military

College (previously known as Sainik School, Dehra Dun), Students of Military

Schools formerly known as King George’s Schools and Sainik Schools run by

Sainik Schools Society are required to inform their Head of

Office/Department, Commanding Officer, Principals of College/School

concerned, as the case may be, in writing that they have applied for this

examination. Candidates should note that in case a communication is received

by the Commission from their employer/authority concerned withholding

permission to the candidates applying for/appearing at the examination, their

applications will be liable to be rejected/candidatures will be liable to be

cancelled.

NOTE-3 : WHILE FILLING IN THE APPLICATION FORM, THE

CANDIDATE SHOULD CAREFULLY DECIDE ABOUT HIS CHOICE FOR

THE CENTRE FOR THE EXAMINATION.

IF ANY CANDIDATE APPEARS AT A CENTRE OTHER THAN

THE ONE INDICATED BY THE COMMISSION IN HIS E-ADMISSION

CERTIFICATE, THE PAPERS OF SUCH A CANDIDATE WILL NOT BE

VALUED AND HIS CANDIDATURE WILL BE LIABLE TO

CANCELLATION.

NOTE-4 : APPLICATIONS WITHOUT THE PRESCRIBED FEE

(UNLESS REMISSION OF FEE IS CLAIMED AS IN PARA 4 ABOVE) OR

INCOMPLETE APPLICATIONS SHALL BE SUMMARILY REJECTED. NO

REPRESENTATION OR CORRESPONDENCE REGARDING SUCH

REJECTION SHALL BE ENTERTAINED UNDER ANY CIRCUMSTANCES.

CANDIDATES ARE NOT REQUIRED TO SUBMIT ALONG WITH THEIR

APPLICATIONS ANY CERTIFICATE IN SUPPORT OF THEIR CLAIMS

REGARDING AGE,  EDUCATIONAL QUALIFICATIONS, SCHEDULED

CASTES/SCHEDULED TRIBES/OTHER BACKWARD CLASSES AND FEE

REMISSION ETC. THEY SHOULD THEREFORE, ENSURE THAT THEY

FULFIL ALL THE ELIGIBILITY CONDITIONS FOR ADMISSION TO THE

EXAMINATION. THEIR ADMISSION TO THE EXAMINATION WILL

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ALSO THEREFORE BE PURELY PROVISIONAL. IF ON VERIFICATION AT

ANY LATER DATE IT IS FOUND THAT THEY DO NOT FULFIL ALL

ELIGIBILITY CONDITIONS, THEIR CANDIDATURE WILL BE

CANCELLED. THE RESULT OF THE WRITTEN PART OF THE

EXAMINATION IS LIKELY TO BE DECLARED IN THE MONTH OF JULY,

2017. ÑAll the candidates who have successfully qualified in the written exam

are required to register themselves online on the Indian Army Recruiting

website joinindianarmy.nic.in within two weeks of announcement of written

result.  The successful candidates would then be allotted Selection Centres

and dates of SSB interview which shall be communicated on the registered e-

mail ID.  Any candidate who has already registered earlier on the site will not

be required to do so.  In case of any query / Login problem, e-mail be

forwarded to dir-recruiting6-mod@nic.in.Ò

NOTE 5: CANDIDATES WHO HAVE PASSED WRITTEN TEST ARE

NOT REQUIRED TO SUBMIT THEIR ORIGINAL CERTIFICATE OF AGE

AND EDUCATIONAL QUALIFICATION EITHER TO DIRECTORATE

GENERAL OF RECRUITING, ARMY HQ, WEST BLOCK-III, RK PURAM,

NEW DELHI-110066 OR TO NAVAL HEADQUARTERS, DMPR, OI&R

SECTION, ‘C’ WING, SENA BHAWAN, NEW DELHI-110011.

ALL CANDIDATES CALLED FOR INTERVIEW MUST CARRY

THEIR ORIGINAL MATRICULATION CERTIFICATE OR EQUIVALENT

EXAMINATION CERTIFICATE TO THE SERVICES SELECTION BOARD

(SSB). ORIGINALS WILL HAVE TO BE PRODUCED BY THE CANDIDATES

WHO QUALIFY AT THE SSB INTERVIEW SOON AFTER THE INTERVIEW.

THE ORIGINALS WILL BE RETURNED AFTER VERIFICATION. THOSE

CANDIDATES WHO HAVE ALREADY PASSED 10+2 EXAMINATION

MUST CARRY THEIR ORIGINAL 10+2 PASS CERTIFICATE OR MARKS

SHEET FOR THE SSB INTERVIEW. IF ANY OF THEIR CLAIMS IS FOUND

TO BE INCORRECT THEY MAY RENDER THEMSELVES LIABLE TO

DISCIPLINARY ACTION BY THE COMMISSION IN TERMS OF THE

FOLLOWING PROVISIONS:

A candidate who is or has been declared by the Commission to be guilty of :

(i) obtaining support for his candidature by any

means, or

(ii) impersonating, or

(iii) procuring impersonation by any person, or

(iv) submitting fabricated documents or documents which have

been tampered with, or

(v) making statements which are incorrect or false or suppressing

material information,   or

(vi) resorting to any other irregular or improper means in

connection with his candidature for the examination, or

(vii) using unfair means during the examination, or

(viii) writing irrelevant matter, including obscene language or

pornographic matter, in the script(s), or

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giving the candidate an opportunity of making such representation, in writing as he may wish to make in that behalf; and

taking the representation, if any, submitted by the candidate within the period allowed to him into consideration.

(ix) misbehaving in any other manner in the examination hall, or

(x) harassing or doing bodily harm to the Staff employed by the

Commission for the conduct of their examination, or

(xi) being in possession of or using mobile phone, pager bluetooth

or any electronic equipment or device or any other equipment capable

of being used as a communication device during the examination, or

(xii) violating any of the instructions issued to candidates alongwith

their Admission Certificates permitting them to take the examination, or

(xiii) attempting to commit or as the case may be abetting the

Commission of all or any of the acts specified in the foregoing clauses,

may in addition to rendering himself liable to criminal prosecution be

liable

(a) to be disqualified by the Commission from the

examination for which he is a candidate and/or

(b) to be debarred either permanently or for a specified

period

(i) by the Commission from any examination or selection

held by  them;

(ii) by the Central Government from any employment

under them and;

(c) if he is already in service under Government to disciplinary

action under the appropriate rules.

Provided that no penalty under this rule shall be imposed except after :

(i)

(ii)

6. LAST DATE FOR SUBMISSION OF APPLICATIONS:

The Online Applications can be filled upto 10th February, 2017 till 6.00

2. TRAVELLING ALLOWANCE:

Candidates appearing for SSB interview for the first time for a

particular type of Commission i.e. Permanent or Short Service, shall be

entitled for AC III Tier to and fro railway fare or bus fare including

reservation cum sleeper charges within the Indian limits. Candidates who

apply again for the same type of Commission will not be entitled to

travelling allowance on any subsequent occasion.

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8. CORRESPONDENCE WITH THE COMMISSION / ARMY / NAVAL /

AIR HEADQUARTERS:

The Commission will not enter into any correspondence with the

candidates about their candidature except in the following cases :

(i)  The eligible candidates shall be issued an e-Admit Card three weeks

before the commencement of the examination. The e-Admit Card will be

made available in the UPSC website [upsc.gov.in] for being downloaded by

candidates. No Admit Card will be sent by post. For downloading the e-

Admit Card the candidate must have his vital parameters like RID & Date

of Birth or Roll No. (if received) & date of birth or name, father’s name &

Date of Birth available with him.

(ii) If a candidate does not receive his e-Admit Card or any other

communication regarding his candidature for the examination one week

before the commencement of the examination, he should at once contact the

Commission. Information in this regard can also be obtained from the

Facilitation Counter located in the CommissionÔs Office either in person or

over Phone Nos. 011Ï23385271/011Ï23381125/011Ï23098543 Extn 4119,

4120. In case no communication is received in the CommissionÔs Office

from the candidate regarding non-receipt of his e-Admit Card at least one

week before the examination, he himself will be solely responsible for non-

receipt of his e-Admit Card.

(iii)   No candidate will ordinarily be allowed to take the examination

unless he holds a certificate of admission for the examination. On receipt of

e-Admit Card, check it carefully and bring discrepancies/errors, if any, to

the notice of the UPSC immediately. The courses to which the candidates

are admitted will be according to their eligibility as per educational

qualifications for different courses and the preferences given by the

candidates.

The candidates should note that their admission to the examination will be

purely provisional based on the information given by them in the

Application Form. This will be subject to verification of all the eligibility

conditions.

(iv)  The decision of the Commission as to the acceptance of the application

of a candidate and his eligibility or otherwise for admission to the

Examination shall be final.

(v) Candidates should note that the name in the e-Admit Card in some

cases, may be abbreviated due to technical reasons.

(vi) Candidates must ensure that their e.mail Ids given in their online

applications are valid and active.

IMPORTANT : All Communications to the Commission should invariably

contain    the following particulars.

1. Name and year of the examination.
2. Registration ID (RID).

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3. Roll Number (if received).
4. Name of candidate (in full and in block letters).
5. Postal Address  as  given  in  the  application.

N.B. (i) : Communications not containing the above particulars may not be

attended to.

N.B. (ii) : If a letter/communication is received from a candidate after an

examination has been held and it does not give his full name and roll number,

it will be ignored and no action will be taken thereon. Candidates

recommended by the Commission for interview by the Services Selection

Board who have changed their addresses subsequent to the submission of

their applications for the examination should immediately after

announcement of the result of the written part of the examination notify the

changed address also to :Ð

For candidates with Army as first choiceÐArmy Headquarters, A.GÔs Branch,

RTG (NDA Entry), West Block-III, Wing-1, R. K. Puram, New Delhi-110066,

Phone No. 26175473.

For candidates with Navy/Naval Academy as first choiceÐ Naval

Headquarters, Directorate of Manpower & Recruitment, OI&R Section, R. No.

204, ÓCÔ Wing, Sena Bhawan,New Delhi-110011, Phone No.

23010097/23011282.

For candidates with Air Force as first choiceÐAir Headquarters, Directorate

of Personnel (Officers), PO 3 (A), Room No. 17, ÓJÔ Block, Opp. Vayu Bhawan,

Motilal Nehru Marg, New Delhi-110106, Phone No. 23010231 Extn. 7973.

FAILURE TO COMPLY WITH THIS INSTRUCTION WILL DEPRIVE THE

CANDIDATE OF ANY CLAIM TO CONSIDERATION IN THE EVENT OF

HIS NOT RECEIVING THE SUMMONS LETTER FOR INTERVIEW BY THE

SERVICES SELECTION BOARD.

AFTER HAVING CLEARED THE WRITTEN EXAMINATION THE

CANDIDATES SHOULD LOG ON TO THE FOLLOWING WEBSITES FOR

THEIR SSB CENTRE & DATE OF INTERVIEW :-

joinindianarmy.nic.in

joinindiannavy.gov.in

careerairforce.nic.in 

Candidates whose names have been recommended for interview by the

Services Selection Board should address enquiries or requests, if any, relating

to their interview or visit website of respective service headquarters after 20

days from the announcement of written results as follows :Ð

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For candidates with Army as first choiceÐArmy Headquarters, AGÔs Branch,

RTG (NDA Entry), West Block-III, Wing-1, R.K. Puram, New Delhi Ï 110 066,

Phone No. 26175473 or joinindianarmy.nic.in

For candidates with Navy/Naval Academy as first choiceÐNaval

Headquarters, Directorate of Manpower & Recruitment, O.I. & R. Section,

Room No. 204, ÓCÔ Wing, Sena Bhavan, New Delhi-110011, Phone No.

23010097/Email : officer-navy@nic.in or joinindiannavy.gov.in

For candidates with Air Force as first choiceÐAir Headquarters, Directorate

of Personnel (Officers), PO 3 (A), Room No. 17, ÓJÔ Block, Opp. Vayu Bhawan,

Motilal Nehru Marg, New Delhi-110106, Phone No. 23010231 Extn. 7973/7646

or careerairforce.nic.in

Candidates are required to report for SSB interview on the date intimated to

them in the call up letter for interview. Requests for postponing interview will

only be considered in exceptional circumstances and that too if it is

administratively convenient for which Army Headquarters will be the sole

deciding authority. Such requests should be addressed to the Administrative

Officer of the Selection Centre from where the call letter for interview has

been received. No action will be taken on letters received by Army/Navy/Air

HQs. SSB interview for the candidates qualified in the written examination

will be held during the months of September, 2017 to October, 2017 or as

suitable to Recruiting Directorate. For all queries regarding Merit list, joining

instructions and any other relevant information regarding selection process,

please visit our website joinindianarmy.nic.in.

9. ANNOUNCEMENT OF THE RESULTS OF THE WRITTEN

EXAMINATION, INTERVIEW OF QUALIFIED CANDIDATES,

ANNOUNCEMENT OF FINAL RESULTS AND ADMISSION TO THE

TRAINING COURSES OF THE FINALLY QUALIFIED CANDIDATES:

The Union Public Service Commission shall prepare a list of candidates who

obtain the minimum qualifying marks in the written examination as fixed by

the Commission at their discretion. Such candidates shall appear before a

Services Selection Board for Intelligence and Personality Test where

candidates for the Army/Navy wings of the NDA and 10+2 Cadet Entry

Scheme of Indian Naval Academy will be assessed on Officers Potentiality

and those for the Air Force in Computerised Pilot Selection System (CPSS)

and Pilot Aptitude Test (which forms the whole PAB Test) and for Officers

Potentiality. PABT applicable to candidates with Air Force as First choice

would also be conducted for all SSB qualified candidates with one of the

choice as Air Force subject to their eligibility and if they are so willing.

TWO-STAGE SELECTION PROCEDURE

Two-stage selection procedure based on Psychological Aptitude Test and

Intelligence Test has been introduced at Selection Centres/Air Force Selection

Boards/Naval Selection Boards. All the candidates will be put to stage-one

test on first day of reporting at Selection Centres/Air Force Selection

13

Boards/Naval Selection Boards. Only those candidates who qualify at stage

one will be admitted to the second stage/remaining tests. Those candidates

who qualify stage II will be required to submit the Original Certificates along

with one photocopy each of : (i) Original Matriculation pass certificate or

equivalent in support of date of birth, (ii) Original 10+2 pass certificate or

equivalent in support of educational qualification.

Candidates who appear before the Services Selection Board and undergo the

test there, will do so at their own risk and will not be entitled to claim any

compensation or other relief from Government in respect of any injury which

they may sustain in the course of or as a result of any of the tests given to

them at the Services Selection Board whether due to the negligence of any

person or otherwise. Parents or guardians of the candidates will be required

to sign a certificate to this effect.

To be acceptable, candidates for the Army/Navy/Naval Academy and Air

Force should secure the minimum qualifying marks separately in (i) Written

examination as fixed by the Commission at their discretion and (ii) Officer

Potentiality Test as fixed by the Services Selection Board at their discretion.

Over and above candidates for the Air Force, and all the SSB qualified

candidates as per their willingness, eligibility and preference for Air Force,

should separately qualify the PABT.

Subject to these conditions the qualified candidates will then be placed in a

single combined list on the basis of total marks secured by them in the

Written Examination and the Services Selection Board Tests. The final

allocation/selection for admission to the Army, Navy, Air Force of the

National Defence Academy and 10+2 Cadet Entry Scheme of Indian Naval

Academy will be made upto the number of vacancies available subject to

eligibility, medical fitness and merit-cum-preference of the candidates. The

candidates who are eligible to be admitted to multiple Services/Courses will

be considered for allocation/selection with reference to their order or

preferences and in the event of their final allocation/ selection to one

Service/Course, they will not be considered for admission to other remaining

Services/Courses.

N.B.: EVERY CANDIDATE FOR THE AIR FORCE IS GIVEN

COMPUTERISED PILOT SELECTION SYSTEM (CPSS) AND PILOT

APTITUDE TEST (WHICH FORMS THE WHOLE PAB TEST) ONLY

ONCE. THE GRADE SECURED BY HIM AT THE FIRST TEST WILL

THEREFORE HOLD GOOD FOR EVERY SUBSEQUENT INTERVIEW HE

HAS WITH THE AIR FORCE SELECTION BOARD. A CANDIDATE

WHO FAILS IN THE FIRST PILOT APTITUDE TEST CANNOT APPLY

FOR ADMISSION TO THE NATIONAL DEFENCE ACADEMY

EXAMINATION FOR THE AIR FORCE WING OR GENERAL DUTIES

(PILOT) BRANCH OR NAVAL AIR ARM.

Candidates who have been given the Computerised Pilot Selection System

(CPSS) and Pilot Aptitude Test (which forms the whole PAB Test) for any

14

previous N.D.A. course should submit their application for this examination

for the Air Force Wing only if they have been notified as having qualified in

the Pilot Aptitude Test.

The form and manner of communication of the result of the examination to

individual candidates shall be decided by the Commission at their discretion

and the Commission will not enter into correspondence with them regarding

the result.

Success in the examination confers no right of admission to the Academy. A

candidate must satisfy the appointing authority that he is suitable in all

respects for admission to the Academy.

10. DISQUALIFICATION FOR ADMISSION TO THE TRAINING

COURSE:

Candidates who were admitted to an earlier course at the National

Defence Academy, or to the 10 + 2 Cadet Entry Scheme of Indian Naval

Academy but were removed therefrom for lack of officer-like qualities or on

disciplinary grounds will not be admitted to the Academy.

Candidates who were previously withdrawn from the National

Defence Academy or Indian Naval Academy on medical grounds or left the

above Academy voluntarily are however, eligible for admission to the

Academy provided they satisfy the medical and other prescribed conditions.

11. NO REQUEST FOR WITHDRAWAL OF CANDIDATURE

RECEIVED FROM A CANDIDATE AFTER HE HAS SUBMITTED HIS

APPLICATION WILL BE ENTERTAINED UNDER ANY

CIRCUMSTANCES.

12. The details regarding (a) the scheme and syllabus of the examination,

(b) guidelines for filling up the online Application Form (c) Special

Instructions to candidates for objective type tests, (d) Physical standards for

admission to the National Defence Academy and Naval Academy and (e)

Brief particulars of the service etc., for candidates joining the National

Defence Academy and Naval Academy are given in Appendices I, II, III, IV

and V respectively.

(Om Prakash)

Under Secretary

Union Public Service Commission

15

APPENDIX-I

                  (The Scheme and Syllabus of Examination)

1. SCHEME OF EXAMINATION
2. The subjects of the written examination, the time allowed and the

maximum marks allotted to each subject will be as follows:Ð

Subject           Code     Duration   Maximum

        Marks

Mathematics            01  2đ Hours   300

General Ability Test   02                 2đ Hours   600

 

Total      900

SSB Test/Interview :                  900

2. THE PAPERS IN ALL THE SUBJECTS WILL CONSIST OF OBJECTIVE

TYPE QUESTIONS ONLY. THE QUESTION PAPERS (TEST BOOKLETS) OF

MATHEMATICS AND PART ÑBÒ OF GENERAL ABILITY TEST WILL BE

SET BILINGUALLY IN HINDI AS WELL AS ENGLISH.

3. In the question papers, wherever necessary, questions involving the

metric system of Weights and Measures only will be set.

4. Candidates must write the papers in their own hand. In no

circumstances will they be allowed the help of a scribe to write answers for

them.

5. The Commission have discretion to fix qualifying marks in any or all the

subjects at the examination.

6. The candidates are not permitted to use calculator or Mathematical or

logarithmic table for answering objective type papers (Test Booklets). They

should not therefore, bring the same inside the Examination Hall.

1. SYLLABUS OF THE EXAMINATION

 

PAPER-I

MATHEMATICS

(Code No. 01)

(Maximum Marks-300)

1. ALGEBRA

 

Concept of set, operations on sets, Venn diagrams.

De Morgan laws, Cartesian product, relation, equivalence relation.

Representation of real numbers on a line. Complex numbersÐbasic

properties, modulus, argument, cube roots of unity. Binary system of

numbers. Conversion of a number in decimal system to binary system and

vice-versa. Arithmetic, Geometric and Harmonic progressions. Quadratic

16

equations with real coefficients. Solution of linear inequations of two

variables by graphs. Permutation and Combination. Binomial theorem and its

applications. Logarithms and their applications.

2. MATRICES AND DETERMINANTS :

Types of matrices, operations on matrices. Determinant of a matrix, basic

properties of determinants. Adjoint and inverse of a square matrix,

Applications-Solution of a system of linear equations in two or three

unknowns by CramerÔs rule and by Matrix Method.

3. TRIGONOMETRY :

Angles and their measures in degrees and in radians. Trigonometrical

ratios. Trigonometric identities Sum and difference formulae. Multiple and

Sub-multiple angles. Inverse trigonometric functions. Applications-Height

and distance, properties of triangles.

4. ANALYTICAL GEOMETRY OF TWO AND THREE DIMENSIONS:

Rectangular Cartesian Coordinate system. Distance formula. Equation

of a line in various forms. Angle between two lines. Distance of a point from a

line. Equation of a circle in standard and in general form. Standard forms of

parabola, ellipse and hyperbola. Eccentricity and axis of a conic. Point in a

three dimensional space, distance between two points. Direction Cosines and

direction ratios. Equation two points. Direction Cosines and direction ratios.

Equation of a plane and a line in various forms. Angle between two lines and

angle between two planes. Equation of a sphere.

5. DIFFERENTIAL CALCULUS :

Concept of a real valued functionÏdomain, range and graph of a

function. Composite functions, one to one, onto and inverse functions. Notion

of limit, Standard limitsÐexamples. Continuity of functionsÐexamples,

algebraic operations on continuous functions. Derivative of function at a

point, geometrical and physical interpretation of a derivativeÐapplications.

Derivatives of sum, product and quotient of functions, derivative of a

function with respect to another function, derivative of a composite function.

Second order derivatives. Increasing and decreasing functions. Application of

derivatives in problems of maxima and minima.

6. INTEGRAL CALCULUS AND DIFFERENTIAL EQUATIONS :

Integration as inverse of differentiation, integration by substitution

and by parts, standard integrals involving algebraic expressions,

trigonometric, exponential and hyperbolic functions. Evaluation of definite

integralsÐdetermination of areas of plane regions bounded by curvesÐ

applications.

17

Definition of order and degree of a differential equation, formation

of a differential equation by examples. General and particular solution of a

differential equations, solution of first order and first degree differential

equations of various typesÐexamples. Application in problems of growth

and decay.

7. VECTOR ALGEBRA :

Vectors in two and three dimensions, magnitude and direction of a

vector. Unit and null vectors, addition of vectors, scalar multiplication of a

vector, scalar product or dot product of two vectors. Vector product or cross

product of two vectors. ApplicationsÐwork done by a force and moment of a

force and in geometrical problems.

8. STATISTICS AND PROBABILITY :

Statistics : Classification of data, Frequency distribution, cumulative

frequency distributionÐexamples. Graphical representationÐHistogram, Pie

Chart, frequency polygonÐexamples. Measures of Central tendencyÐMean,

median and mode. Variance and standard deviationÐdetermination and

comparison. Correlation and regression.

Probability : Random experiment, outcomes and associated sample space,

events, mutually exclusive and exhaustive events, impossible and certain

events. Union and Intersection of events. Complementary, elementary and

composite events. Definition of probabilityÐclassical and statisticalÐ

examples. Elementary theorems on probabilityÐsimple problems.

Conditional probability, BayesÔ theoremÐsimple problems. Random variable

as function on a sample space. Binomial distribution, examples of random

experiments giving rise to Binominal distribution.

 

PAPER-II

GENERAL ABILITY TEST

(Code No. 02)

(Maximum MarksÐ600)

Part ÓAÔÐENGLISH                                           (Maximum MarksÐ200)

The question paper in English will be designed to test the candidateÔs

understanding of English and workman like use of words. The syllabus

covers various aspects like : Grammar and usage, vocabulary, comprehension

and cohesion in extended text to test the candidateÔs proficiency in English.

Part ÓBÔÐGENERAL KNOWLEDGE                            (Maximum MarksÐ400)

The question paper on General Knowledge will broadly cover the

subjects : Physics, Chemistry, General Science, Social Studies, Geography and

Current Events.

– The syllabus given below is designed to indicate the scope of these subjects

included in this paper. The topics mentioned are not to be regarded as

exhaustive and questions on topics of similar nature not specifically

18

mentioned in the syllabus may also be asked. CandidateÔs answers are

expected to show their knowledge and intelligent understanding of the

subject.

Section ÓAÔ (Physics)

Physical Properties and States of Matter, Mass, Weight, Volume,

Density and Specific Gravity, Principle of Archimedes, Pressure Barometer.

Motion of objects, Velocity and Acceleration, NewtonÔs Laws of

Motion, Force and Momentum, Parallelogram of Forces, Stability and

Equilibrium of bodies, Gravitation, elementary ideas of work, Power and

Energy. Effects of Heat, Measurement of Temperature and Heat, change of

State and Latent Heat, Modes of transference of Heat. Sound waves and their

properties, Simple musical instruments. Rectilinear propagation of Light,

Reflection and refraction. Spherical mirrors and Lenses, Human Eye.

Natural and Artificial Magnets, Properties of a Magnet, Earth as a Magnet.

Static and Current Electricity, conductors and Non-conductors,

OhmÔs Law, Simple Electrical Circuits, Heating, Lighting and Magnetic effects

of Current, Measurement of Electrical Power, Primary and Secondary Cells,

Use of X-Rays.  General Principles in the working of the following:

Simple Pendulum, Simple Pulleys, Siphon, Levers, Balloon, Pumps,

Hydrometer, Pressure Cooker, Thermos Flask, Gramophone, Telegraphs,

Telephone, Periscope, Telescope, Microscope, MarinerÔs Compass; Lightening

Conductors, Safety Fuses.

Section ÓBÔ (Chemistry)

Physical and Chemical changes. Elements, Mixtures and

Compounds, Symbols, Formulae and simple Chemical Equations, Law of

Chemical Combination (excluding problems). Properties of Air and Water.

Preparation and Properties of Hydrogen, Oxygen, Nitrogen and

Carbondioxide, Oxidation and Reduction. Acids, bases and salts. CarbonÐ

different forms. FertilizersÐNatural and Artificial. Material used in the

preparation of substances like Soap, Glass, Ink, Paper, Cement, Paints, Safety

Matches and Gun-Powder. Elementary ideas about the structure of Atom,

Atomic Equivalent and Molecular Weights, Valency.

Section ÓCÔ (General Science)

Difference between the living and non-living. Basis of LifeÐCells,

Protoplasms and Tissues. Growth and Reproduction in Plants and Animals.

Elementary knowledge of Human Body and its important organs. Common

Epidemics, their causes and prevention.

FoodÐSource of Energy for man. Constituents of food, Balanced Diet. The

Solar SystemÐMeteors and Comets, Eclipses. Achievements of Eminent

Scientists.

Section ÓDÔ (History, Freedom Movement etc.)

19

A broad survey of Indian History, with emphasis on Culture and Civilisation.

Freedom Movement in India. Elementary study of Indian Constitution and

Administration. Elementary knowledge of Five Year Plans of India.

Panchayati Raj, Co-operatives and Community Development. Bhoodan,

Sarvodaya, National Integration and Welfare State, Basic Teachings of

Mahatma Gandhi.

Forces shaping the modern world; Renaissance, Exploration and

Discovery; War of American Independence. French Revolution, Industrial

Revolution and Russian Revolution. Impact of Science and Technology on

Society. Concept of one World, United Nations, Panchsheel, Democracy,

Socialism and Communism. Role of India in the present world.

Section ÓEÔ (Geography)

The Earth, its shape and size. Lattitudes and Longitudes, Concept of

time. International Date Line. Movements of Earth and their effects.

Origin of Earth. Rocks and their classification; WeatheringÐMechanical and

Chemical, Earthquakes and Volcanoes. Ocean Currents and Tides

Atmosphere and its composition; Temperature and Atmospheric Pressure,

Planetary Winds, Cyclones and Anti-cyclones; Humidity; Condensation and

Precipitation; Types of Climate, Major Natural regions of the World.

Regional Geography of IndiaÐClimate, Natural vegetation. Mineral and

Power resources; location and distribution of agricultural and Industrial

activities. Important Sea ports and main sea, land and air routes of India.

Main items of Imports and Exports of India.

Section ÓFÔ (Current Events)

Knowledge of Important events that have happened in India in the

recent years. Current important world events. Prominent personalitiesÐboth

Indian and International including those connected with cultural activities

and sports.

NOTE : Out of maximum marks assigned to part ÓBÔ of this paper, questions

on Sections ÓAÔ, ÓBÔ, ÓCÔ, ÓDÔ, ÓEÔ and ÓFÔ will carry approximately 25%, 15%,

10%, 20%, 20% and 10% weightages respectively.

Intelligence and Personality Test

The SSB procedure consists of two stage Selection process – stage I and

stage II.  Only those candidates who clear the stage I are permitted to appear

for stage II.  The details are :

(a) Stage I comprises of Officer Intelligence Rating (OIR) tests are Picture

Perception * Description Test (PP&DT).  The candidates will be shortlisted

based on combination of performance in OIR Test and PP&DT.

20

(b) Stage II Comprises of Interview, Group Testing Officer Tasks, Psychology

Tests and the Conference.  These tests are conducted over 4 days.  The details

of these tests are given on the website joinindianarmy.nic.in.

 

The personality of a candidate is assessed by three different assessors

viz.  The Interviewing Officer (IO), Group Testing Officer (GTO) and the

Psychologist.  There are no separate weightage for each test.  The mks are

allotted by assessors only after taking into consideration the performance of

the candidate holistically in all the test.  In addition, marks for Conference are

also allotted based on the initial performance of the Candidate in the three

techniques and decision of the Board.  All these have equal weightage.

The various tests of IO, GTO and Psych are designed to bring out the

presence/absence of Officer Like Qualities and their trainability in a

candidate.  Accordingly candidates are Recommended or Not Recommended

at the SSB.

APPENDIXÏII

 

INSTRUCTIONS TO THE CANDIDATES FOR FILLING ONLINE

APPLICATION

Candidates are required to apply online by using the website

upsconline.nic.in

Salient Features of the Online Applications Form are given hereunder:

• Detailed instructions for filling up Online Applications are available on

the above mentioned website.

• Candidates will be required to complete the Online Application form

containing two stages viz. Part I and Part II.

• The candidates are required to pay a fee of Rs. 100/- (Rupees one

hundred only) [except SC/ST candidates and those specified in Note-2

of Para 4 of the Notice who are exempted from payment of fee] either

by depositing the money in any branch of SBI by cash or by using net

banking facility of State Bank of India/State Bank of Bikaner &

Jaipur/State Bank of Hyderabad/State Bank of Mysore/State Bank of

Patiala/State Bank of Travancore or by using any Visa/Master

Credit/Debit Card.

• Before start filling up Online Application, a candidate must have his

photograph and signature duly scanned in the .jpg format in such a

manner that each file should not exceed 40 KB and must not be less

than 3 KB in size for the photograph and 1 KB for the signature.

• The Online Applications (Part I and II) can be filled from 18th January,

2017 to 10th February, 2017 till 6.00 PM.

• Applicants should avoid submitting multiple applications.  However,

if due to any unavoidable circumstances any applicant submits

multiple applications then he must ensure that the applications with

higher RID is complete in all respects.

• In case of multiple applications, the applications with higher RID shall

be entertained by the Commission and fee paid against one RID shall

not be adjusted against any other RID.

21

There are four alternatives for the answer to every question.  For each question for which a wrong answer has been given by the candidate.  One third (0.33) of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty.

If a candidate given more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above for that question.

If a question is left blank i.e. no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for that question.

• The applicants must ensure that while filling their Application Form,

they are providing their valid and active E-mail Ids as the Commission

may use electronic mode of communication while contacting them at

different stages of examination process.

• The applicants are advised to check their e-mails at regular intervals

and ensure that the email address ending with @nic.in are directed to

their inbox folder and not to the SPAM folder or any other folder.

• Candidates are strongly advised to apply online well in time without

waiting for the last date for submission of online application.

APPENDIXÏIII

 

Special Instructions to Candidates for objective type tests

1. Articles permitted inside Examination Hall

     Clip board or hard board (on which nothing is written)a good quality

Black Ball Pen for marking responses on the Answer Sheet.   Answer Sheet

and sheet for rough work will be supplied by the invigilator.

2. Articles not permitted inside Examination Hall

     Do not bring into the Examination Hall any article other than those

specified above e.g. books, notes, loose sheets, electronic or any other type

of calculators, mathematical and drawing instruments, Log Tables, stencils

of maps, slide rules, Test Booklets and rough sheets pertaining to earlier

session(s) etc.

Mobiles, phones, Bluetooth, pagers or any other communication devices

are not allowed inside the premises where the examination is being

conducted.  Any infringement of these instructions shall entail

disciplinary action including ban from future examinations.

 Candidates are advised in their own interest not to bring any of the

banned items including mobile phones/Bluetooth/pagers to the venue of

the examination, as arrangements for safekeeping cannot be assured. 

Candidates are advised not to bring any valuable/costly items to the

Examination Halls, as safe keeping of the same cannot be assured. 

Commission will not be responsible for any loss in this regard.

3. Penalty for wrong Answers

            THERE WILL BE PENALTY (NEGATIVE MARKING) FOR WRONG

ANSWERS MARKED BY A     CANDIDATE IN THE OBJECTIVE TYPE

QUESTION PAPERS.

(i)

(ii)

(iii)

22

4. Unfair means strictly prohibited

           No candidate shall copy from the papers of any other candidate nor permit

his papers to be copied nor give nor attempt to give nor obtain nor attempt

to obtain irregular assistance of any description.

5. Conduct in Examination Hall

  No candidate should misbehave in any manner or create disorderly scene

in the Examination Hall or harass the staff employed by the Commission

for the conduct of the examination.  Any such misconduct will be severely

penalised.

6. Answer Sheet particulars

 (i) Write with Black ball pen your Centre and subject followed by test booklet

series (in bracket), subject code and roll number at the appropriate space

provided on the answer sheet at the top.  Also encode your booklet series

(A, B, C, or D as the case may be), subject code and roll number in the

circles provided for the purpose in the answer sheet.  The guidelines for

writing the above particulars and for encoding the above particulars are

given in Annexure.  In case the booklet series is not printed on the test

booklet or answer sheet is un-numbered, please report immediately to the

invigilator and get the test booklet/answer sheet replaced.

(ii) Candidates should note that any omission/mistakes/discrepancy in

encoding/filling of details in the OMR answer sheet, especially with regard

to Roll Number and Test Booklet Series Code, will render the answer sheet

liable for rejection.

(iii) Immediately after commencement of the examination please check that the

test booklet supplied to you does not have any unprinted or torn or missing

pages or items etc., if so, get it replaced by a complete test booklet of the

same series and subject.

7. Do not write your name or anything other than the specific items of

information asked for, on the answer sheet/test booklet/sheet for rough

work.

8. Do not fold or mutilate or damage or put any extraneous marking in the

Answer Sheet.  Do not write anything on the reverse of the answer sheet.

9. Since the answer sheets will be evaluated on computerised machines,

candidates should exercise due care in handling and filling up the answer

sheets.  They should use black ball pen only to darken the circles.  For

writing in boxes, they should use black ball pen.  Since the entries made

by the candidates by darkening the circles will be taken into account

while evaluating the answer sheets on computerised machines, they

should make these entries very carefully and accurately.

23

10. Method of marking answers

 In the ÓOBJECTIVE TYPEÔ of examination, you do not write the answers.

For each question (hereinafter referred to as ÑItemÒ) several suggested

answers (hereinafter referred to as ÑResponsesÒ) are given.  You have to

choose one response to each item.  The question paper will be in the Form

of TEST BOOKLET.  The booklet will contain item bearing numbers 1, 2,

3…….etc.  Under each item, Responses marked (a), (b), (c), (d) will be given.

Your task will be to choose the correct response.  If you think there is more

than one correct response, then choose what you consider the best

response.

In any case, for each item you are to select only one response, if you select

more than one response, your response will be considered wrong.

In the Answer Sheet, Serial Nos. From 1 to 160 are printed.  Against each

numbers, there are circles marked (a), (b), (c) and (d).  After you have read

each item in the Test Booklet and decided which one of the given responses

is correct or the best.  You have to mark your response by completely

blackening with black ball pen to indicate your response.

For example, if the correct answer to item 1 is (b), then the circle containing

the letter (b) is to be completely blackened with black ball pen as shown

below :- Example : (a) ¤  (c) (d)

 

11. Entries in Scannable Attendance List.

 Candidates are required to fill in the relevant particulars with black ball

pen only against their columns in the Scannable Attendance List, as given

below.

1. i) Blacken the circle (P) under the column (Present/Absent)
2. ii) Blacken the relevant circle for Test Booklet Series

iii) Write Test Booklet Serial No.

1. iv) Write the Answer Sheet Serial No. and also blacken the

Corresponding circles below.

1. v) Append signature in the relevant column.
2. Please read and abide by the instructions on the cover of Test Booklet. If

any candidate indulges in disorderly or improper conduct  he will render

himself liable for disciplinary action and/or imposition of a penalty as the

Commission may deem fit.

ANNEXURE

 

How to fill in the Answer Sheet of objective type tests in the Examination Hall

Please follow these instructions very carefully.  You may note that since the

answer sheets are to be evaluated on machine, any violation of these instructions

may result in reduction of your score for which you would yourself be

responsible.  Before you mark your responses on the Answer Sheet, you will have

to fill in various particulars in it.

As soon as the candidate receives the Answer Sheet, he should check that it is

numbered at the bottom.  If it is found un-numbered he should at once get it

replaced by a numbered one.

24

A

B

C

D

0 1

0

1

2

3

4

5

6

7

0 1 2 7 6

0

1

2

3

4

5

6

7

8

9

8

You will see from the Answer Sheet that you will have to fill in the top line, which

reads thus:

क_ _           _वषय       _वषय कोड             अनु_मांक 

Centre              Subject      S. Code                    Roll Number  

If you are, say, appearing for the examination in Delhi Centre for the Mathematics

Paper* and your Roll No. is 081276, and your test booklet series is ÓAÔ you should

fill in thus, using black ball pen.

क_ _             _वषय              _वषय कोड          अनु_मांक    

Centre  Delhi       Subject  Mathe-    S.Code              Roll Number

                                     matics (A)         

You should write with black ball pen the name of the centre and subject in English

or Hindi

The test Booklet Series is indicated by Alphabets A, B, C or D at the top right hand

corner of the Booklet.

Write your Roll Numbers exactly as it is in your e-Admission Certificate with

Black ball pen in the boxes provided for this purpose.  Do not omit any zero(s)

which may be there.

The next step is to find out the appropriate subject code from the Time Table.

Now encode the Test Booklet Series, Subject Code and the Roll Number in the

circles provided for this purpose.  Do the encoding with Black Ball pen.  The name

of the Centre need not be encoded.

Writing and encoding of Test Booklet Series is to be done after receiving the Test

Booklet and confirming the Booklet Series from the same.  For Mathematics

*subject paper of ÓAÔ Test Booklet Series you have to encode the subject code,

which is 01.  Do it thus:

पुि_तका _म (ए)                                               _वषय           0             1

  Booklet Series (A)                                             Subject

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

8

9

25

0 8 1 2 7 6

0

1

2

3

4

5

6

7

8

9

0

1

2

3

4

5

6

7

8

9

0

1

2

3

4

5

6

7

8

9

0

1

2

3

4

5

6

7

8

9

0

1

2

3

4

5

6

7

8

9

0

1

2

3

4

5

6

7

8

9

अनु_मांक

Roll Number

All that is required is to blacken

completely the circle marked ÓAÔ

below the Booklet Series and      

below the subject code blacken

completely the Circles for Ñ0Ò (in

the first vertical column) and Ñ1Ò

(in the second vertical column).

You should then encode the Roll

No.081276.  Do it thus similarly:

Important : Please ensure that

you have carefully encoded

your subject.  Test Booklet

series and Roll Number:

*This is just illustrative and

may not be relevant to your

Examination.

APPENDIXÏIV

         

 GUIDELINES FOR PHYSICAL STANDARDS FOR ADMISSION TO THE

NATIONAL DEFENCE ACADEMY.

             NOTE : CANDIDATES MUST BE PHYSICALLY AND MENTALLY

FIT ACCORDING TO THE PRESCRIBED PHYSICAL STANDARDS. THE

GUIDELINES FOR THE SAME ARE GIVEN BELOW.

A NUMBER OF QUALIFIED CANDIDATES ARE REJECTED

SUBSEQUENTLY ON MEDICAL GROUNDS. CANDIDATES ARE

THEREFORE ADVISED IN THEIR OWN INTEREST TO GET THEMSELVES

MEDICALLY EXAMINED BEFORE SUBMITTING THEIR APPLICATIONS

TO AVOID DISAPPOINTMENT AT THE FINAL STAGE.

Candidates are also advised to rectify minor defects/ailments in order

to speed up finalisation of medical examination conducted at the Military

Hospital after being recommended at the SSB.

26

Few of such commonly found defects/ailments are listed below :

(a) Wax (Ears)

(b) Deviated Nasal Septum

(c) Hydrocele/Phimosis

(d) Overweight/Underweight

(e) Under Sized Chest

(f) Piles

(g) Gynaecomastia

(h) Tonsillitis

(i) Varicocele

 NOTE : Permanent body tattoos are only permitted on inner face of forearm

i.e. from inside of elbow to the wrist and on the reverse side of palm/back

(dorsal) side of hand/Permanent body tattoos on any other part of the body

are not acceptable and candidates will be barred from further selection. Tribes

with tattoo marks on the face or body as per their existing custom and

traditions will be permitted on a case to case basis. Comdt Selection Centre

will be competent auth for clearing such cases.

Civilian candidates appearing for all types of commission in the

Armed Forces will be entitled to out-patients treatment from service sources

at public expense for injuries sustained or diseases contracted during the

course of their examination by the Selection Board. They will also be entitled

to in-patient treatment at public expense in the OfficerÔs ward of a hospital

providedÐ

(a) the injury is sustained during the tests or,

(b) the disease is contracted during the course of the examination by selection

board and there is no suitable accommodation in local civil hospital or it is

impracticable to remove the patient to the civil hospital; or,

(c) the medical board requires the candidateÔs admission for observation.

NOTE : They are not entitled to special nursing.

 

A candidate recommended by the Services Selection Board will

undergo a medical examination by a Board of Service Medical Officers. Only

those candidates will be admitted to the academy who are declared fit by the

Medical Board. The proceedings of the Medical Board are confidential and

will not be divulged to anyone. However, the candidates declared unfit will

be intimated by the President of the Medical Board and the procedure for

request for an Appeal Medical Board will also be intimated to the candidate.

Candidates declared unfit during Appeal Medical Board will be intimated

about the provision of Review Medical Board.

27

Weight in Kgs.

42.5  44.0  45.0

43.5  45.3  47.0

45.0  47.0  48.0

46.5  48.0  49.0

48.0  50.0  51.0

50.0  52.0  53.0

51.0  53.0  54.0

52.5  55.0  56.0

54.5  57.0  58.0

56.0  59.0  60.0

58.0  61.0  62.0

60.0  63.0  64.5

62.5  65.0  66.5

(a) The candidate must be in good physical and mental health and free from

any disease/disability which is likely to interfere with the efficient

performance of Military duties.

(b) There should be no evidence of weak constitution, bodily defects or under

weight. The Candidate should not be overweight or obese.

(c) The minimum acceptable height is 157 cms(162.5 cms. for Air Force). For

Gorkhas and individuals belonging to hills of North-Eastern regions of India,

Garhwal and Kumaon, the minimum acceptable heights will be 5 cms. less. In

case of candidates from Lakshadweep the minimum acceptable height can be

reduced by 2 cms. Height and weight standards are given below :

 

HEIGHT/WEIGHT STANDARDS FOR

ARMY/AIR FORCE

TABLE-I

Height in     

Centimetres

(Without  16-17  17-18  18-19

shoes)  years  years  years

1      2     3     4

152

155

157

160

162

165

167

170

173

175

178

180

183

28

Weight in Kgs.

16   18   20

years  years  years

52   53    55

53   55   57

55   57   59

57   59    61

59    61   62

61   63    64

63    65   67

99.00 cms. 120.00 cms.

Р 64.00 cms.

81.50 cms. 96.00 cms.

HEIGHT/WEIGHT STANDARDS FOR NAVY

TABLE-II

 

Height in      

Centimetres

(Without 

shoes) 

1_________________2___________3___________4________________________

152   44   45   46

155    45   46   47

157   46   47   49

160   47   48   50

162    48   50   52

165    50   52   53

168

170

173

175

178

180

183

ÑIndividualÔs weight is considered normal if it is within °10% departure from

average weight given in the table I and IIÒ. However, in individuals with

heavy bones and broad build as well as individuals with thin build but

otherwise healthy this may be relaxed to some extent on merit.

   

    NOTE 1 : Height relaxable upto 2.5 cm. (5 cm. for Navy in case of

candidates below 18 years of age) may be allowed where the Medical Board

certifies that the candidate is likely to grow and come up to the required

standard on completion of his training.

          NOTE 2 : To meet special requirement as a pilot in the Air Force the

acceptable measurements of leg length, thigh length and sitting height will be

as under :

Minimum Maximum

Leg Length

Thigh Length

Sitting Height

(d) Chest should be well developed. Fully expanded chest should not be less

than 81 cms. The minimum range of expansion after full inspiration should be

5 cms. The measurement will be taken with a tape so adjusted that its lower

edge should touch the nipple in front and the upper part of the tape should

touch the lower angle of the shoulder blades behind. X-Ray of the chest is

compulsory and will be taken to rule out any disease of the chest.

29

–

(e) There should be no maldevelopment or impairment of function of the

bones or joint.

 

Spinal Conditions

(f) Past medical history of diseases or injury of the spine or sacro iliac joints,

either with or without objective signs which have prevented the candidate

from successfully following a physically active life, is a cause for rejection for

commissioning in IAF. History of spinal fracture/prolapsed intervertebral

disc and surgical treatment for these conditions will entail rejection. The

following conditions detected radiologically during medical exam will

disqualify a candidate for Air Force service:

(i)  Granulomatous disease of spine

(ii) Arthritidies/spondylosis

Ð Rheumatoid arthritis and allied disorders

Ð Ankylosing spondylitis

Ð Osteoarthrosis, spondylosis and degenerative joint disease

Ð Non articular rheumatism (e.g. lesions of the rotator cuff, tennis elbow,

recurrent    lumbago etc.)

Ð Miscellaneous disorders including SLE, , polymyositis, vasculitis.

(iii) Spondylolisthesis/spondylolysis.

(iv)   Compression fracture of vertebrae.

(v)        Scheuerman’s disease (Adolescent kyphosis)

(vi)  Loss of cervical lordosis when associated with clinically restricted

movements of cervical spine.

(vii) Unilateral/Bilateral cervical ribs with demonstrable neurological or

circulatory deficit.

(viii) Scoliosis more than 15 degree as measured by Cobb’s method.

(ix) Degenerative Disc. Disease.

(x) Presence of schmorl’s nodes at more than one level.

(xi) Atlanto-occipital and atlantoaxial anomalies.

(xii) Hemi vertebrae and/or incomplete block (fused) vertebrae at any level

in cervical, dorsal or lumbar spine and complete block (fused) vertebrae at

more than one level in cervical or dorsal spine.

(xiii) Unilateral Sacralisation or lumbarisation (Complete or incomplete) at

all levels and bilateral incomplete sacralisation or lumbarisation.

(xiv) Any other abnormality if so considered by the specialist.

(g) Mild Kyphosis or Lordosis where deformity is barely noticeable and there

is no pain or restriction of movement will not preclude acceptance.

(h) In case of noticeable Scoliosis or suspicion of any other abnormality or

spinal deformity, more than mild, appropriate X-rays of the spine are to be

taken and the Examinee referred for specialistÔs advice.

(i) The following conditions detected on X-ray examination will be

disqualifying for entry to Armed Forces :

30

(i) Granulomatius disease of spine.

(ii) Arthritidies/spondylosis

(iii) Scoliosis more than 15 degree as measured by CobbÔs Method

(10 degree for Army and Navy).

(iv) More than mild Kyphosis/Lordosis

(v) Spondylolisthesis/Spondylosis/Spondylolysis

(vi) Herniated nucleus pulposes.

(vii) Compression fracture of Vertebra.

 

(viii) Sacaralisation Disease

(ix) Cervical ribs with demonstrable neurological or Circulatory

deficit.

 

(x)      Presence of SchmorlÔs node at more than one level.

 

(xi)    Atlanto-occipital and atlanto-axial anomalies.

(xii)    Incomplete Sacaralisation Unilateral or Bilateral

 

(xiii)   Spina Bifida other than SV 1 and LV 5 if completely Sacralised

(xiv)   Any other abnormality, if so considered by specialist.

(j) A candidate should have no past history of mental breakdown      or

fits.

(k) The hearing should be normal. A candidate should be able to

hear a forced whisper with each ear at a distance of 610 cms. in a

quiet room. There should be no evidence of present or past

disease of the ear, nose and throat. Audiometric test will be done

for AF. Audiometric hearing loss should not be greater than 20

db in frequencies between 250 and 8000 Hz. There is no

impediment of speech.

(l) There should be no signs of functional or organic disease of the

heart and blood vessels. Blood pressure should be normal.

(m) There should be no enlargement of liver or spleen. Any evidence

of   disease of internal organs of the abdomen will be a cause for

rejection.

(n) Un-operated hernias will make a candidate unfit. In case of

Hernia which has been operated, a minimum of 6 months must

have passed prior to final medical examination before

commencement of the course.

31

(o) There should be no hydrocele, varicocele or piles.

(p) Urine examination will be done and any abnormality if detected

will be a cause for rejection.

(q) Any disease of skin which is likely to cause disability or

disfigurement will also be a cause for rejection.

(r) Distance Vision (Corrected): Better Eye 6/6, Worse Eye 6/9.  Myopia

should not be more than -2.5D and manifest hypermetropia not more than

+3.5D including Astigmatism.  Internal examination of the eye will be done

by means of ophthalmoscope to rule out any disease of the eye.  A candidate

must have good binocular vision.  The Colour vision standard will be CP-III

(DEFECTIVE SAFE).  Candidates should be able to recognize white, signal red

and signal green colours correctly as shown by MartinÓs Lantern at a distance

of 1.5 metre or read the requisite plate of Ishihara Book / Tokyo Medical

College Book. Candidates who have undergone or have evidence for having

undergone Radial Keratotomy, to improve the visual acuity will be

permanently rejected for all the services. Candidates who have undergone

Laser Surgery for correction of refractive error are also not acceptable to

defence services.

Vision standard for Naval candidates

Uncorrected without glass   6/6,  6/9

Corrected with glass  6/6,  6/6

Limits of Myopia   Ï0.75

Limits of Hypermetropia  +1.5

Binocular vision   III

Limits of colour perception I

 

 Visual Standards for Air Force

Candidates who habitually wear spectacles are not eligible for Air

Force, Minimum distant vision 6/6 in one eye and

6/9 in other, correctable to 6/6 only for Hypermetropia. Colour vision CP-I

Hypermetropia : +2.0 D Sph Manifest Myopia : Nil Retinoscopic Myopia : 0.5

in any Meridian permitted Astigmatism : + 0.75 D Cyl (within + 2.0 D.Max)

Maddox Rod Test

(i) at 6 meters Exo-6 prism D

Eso-6 prism D

Hyper-1 prism D

Hypro-1 prism D

(ii) at 33 cms  Exo-16 prism D

Eso-6 prism D

Hyper-1 prism D

Hypo-1 prism D

32

Hand held StereoscopeÎAll of BSV grades ConvergenceÎUp to 10 cm Cover test for

distant and nearÎLateral divergence/convergence recovery rapid and complete.

(a) ÐCandidates who have undergone PRK (Photo Refractive Keratotomy / Lasik

(Laser in Situ Keratomileusis) may be considered fit for commissioning in the Air

Force in all branchesÑ. Candidates having undergone cataract surgery with or without

IOL implants will also be declared unfit. Binocular vision must possess good

binocular vision (fusion and stereopsis with good amplitude and depth).

(b) ÐPost PRK/Lasik candidates must meet the visual requirements required for the

branchÑ.

(c) The following criteria must be satisfied prior to selecting post-PRK/LASIK at the

time of Air Force Medical Examination:-

(i) LASIK surgery should not have been carried out before the age of 20 years.

(ii) The axial length of the eye should not be more than 25.5 mm as measured by

IOL master.

(iii)At least 12 months should have elapsed post uncomplicated stable LASIK

with no history or evidence of any complication.

(iv) The post LASIK corneal thickness as measured by a corneal pachymeter

should not be less than 450 microns.

(v) Individual with high refractive errors (> 6D) prior to LASIK are to be

excluded.

(vi) Radial Keratotomy (RK) surgery for correction of refractive errors is not

permitted for any Air Force duties.  Candidates having undergone cataract

surgery with or without IOL implants will also be declared unfit.

(s) USG abdomen examination will be carried out and any congential

structural anomaly or disease of the abdominal organs will be a cause for

rejection in Armed Forces.

(t) The candidates should have sufficient number of natural and sound teeth.

A minimum of 14 dental points will be acceptable. When 32 teeth are present,

the total dental points are 22. A candidate should not be suffering from severe

pyorrhoea.

(u) Routine ECG for Air Force candidates must be within normal limits.

(v) Physical conditioning : Prospective candidates are advised to keep

themselves in good physical condition, by following the under mentioned

routine :Ð

(a) Running 2.4 km in 15 minutes

(b) Skipping

(c) Pushups and sit ups (minimum 20 each)

(d) Chin ups (minimum 08)

(e) Rope climbing 3-4 metres.

33

APPENDIX-V

(BRIEF PARTICULARS OF THE SERVICE ETC.)

1. Before a candidate joins the Academy, the parent or guardian will be

required to sign :Ð

(a) A certificate to the effect that he fully understands that he or his son or

ward shall not be entitled to claim any compensation or other relief from the

Government in respect of any injury which his son or ward may sustain in the

course of or as a result of the training or where bodily infirmity or death

results in the course of or as a result of a surgical operation performed upon

or anesthesia administered to him for the treatment of any injury received as

aforesaid or otherwise.

(b) A bond to the effect that if, on account of his dismissal or discharge

or withdrawal from National Defence Academy for knowingly furnishing

false particulars or suppressing material information in his application for

admission to the said National Defence Academy or in the event of his being

dismissed or discharged or withdrawn on disciplinary grounds from the said,

National Defence Academy or for any reason not beyond the control of the

cadet, he does not complete the prescribed period of training, or he, the cadet,

does not accept a Commission if offered as conventated above, then the

Guarantors and the cadet shall jointly and severally be liable to pay forthwith

to Government in cash sums as the Government shall fix but not exceeding

such expenses as shall have been incurred by the Government on account of

the Cadet on his training and all the money received by the Cadets as pay and

allowance from the Government together with interest on the said money

calculated at the rate in force for Government loans.

2. The cost of training including accommodation, books, uniforms,

boarding and medical treatment will be borne by the Government.  Parents or

guardians of cadets, will, however, be required to meet their pocket and other

private expenses.  Normally these expenses are not likely to exceed Rs.

3000.00 p.m.  If in any case a cadetsÔs parents or guardian is unable to meet

wholly or partly even this expenditure financial assistance of Rs. 1000.00 p.m.

for the period of training may be granted by the Government whose parents

income is less than Rs. 21,000/- per month.  Cadet whose parentÔs or

guardianÔs income exceeds Rs. 21,000/- per month will not be liable for the

assistance.  If more than one son/ward simultaneously undergoing training at

NDA, IMA, OTA and corresponding training establishment in the Navy and

Air Force, then BOTH would be eligible for the financial assistance.

 

The parent/guardian of a candidate desirous of having financial

assistance from the Government should immediately after his son/ward

having been finally selected for training at the National Defence Academy

submit an application through the District Magistrate of his District who will

forward the application with his recommendation to the Commandant,

National Defence Academy, Khadakwasla, Pune-411023.

34

Rs. 15000.00

Rs. 46781.00

3. Candidates finally selected for training at the Academy will be

required to deposit the following amount with the Commandant, National

Defence Academy, on their arrival there :Ð

(a) Pocket allowance for five months

@ Rs. 3000.00 per month.

(b) For items of clothing and equipment                       Rs. 17865.00

(c) Army Group Insurance Fund    Rs.   6400.00

(d) Incidental Expenditure during    Rs.  7516.00

1st Semester

              Total

            

Out of the amount mentioned above the following amount is

refundable to the candidates in the event of financial aid being sanctioned to

them :Ð

(a) Pocket allowance for five months        Rs. 2000.00

at Rs. 400.00 per month

(Corresponding to Govt. Financial

Assistance)

(b) For items of clothing and equip-   Rs. 13935.00

ment approximately

4. The following Scholarships/Financial Assistance are tenable at the

National Defence Academy.

             (1) PARASHURAM BHAU PATWARDHAN SCHOLARSHIPÐThis

Scholarship is granted to cadets overall first in Academics of Passing out

Course.  One time scholarship amount is Rs. 5000/-.

  (2) COLONEL KENDAL FRANK MEMORIAL SCHOLARSHIPÐ

This scholarship is of the value of Rs. 360.00 per annum and awarded to a

MARATHA cadet who should be the son of an ex-serviceman. The

scholarship is in addition to any financial assistance from the Government.

             (3)  KAUR SINGH MEMORIAL SCHOLARSHIPÐTwo scholarships

are awarded to cadets who obtain the highest position amongst candidates

from BIHAR. The value of each scholarship is Rs. 37.00 per mensem tenable

for a maximum period of 4 years during the training at the National Defence

Academy, Khadakwasla and thereafter at the Indian Military Academy,

Dehra Dun and the Air Force Flying College; and Indian Naval Academy,

Ezhimala where the cadets may be sent for training on completion of their

training at the National Defence Academy. The scholarship will, however, be

continued subject to maintaining good progress at the above institution.

             (4)  ASSAM GOVERNMENT SCHOLARSHIPÐTwo scholarships

will be awarded to the cadets from ASSAM. The value of each scholarship is

35

Amount

Low    Middle    High

5000/-    3750/   2500/-

1800/-    1350/-   900/-

Eligibility (i) The cadet must be Indian Citizen and the cdt and/or his of/or permanently domiciled in the State of West Bengal. (ii) The Cadet is not in receipt of any other financial assistance/ grant from the Govt. of India

Rs. 30.00 per mensem and is tenable for the duration of a cadetÔs stay at the

National Defence Academy. The scholarships will be awarded to the two best

cadets from ASSAM without any reference to the income of their parents. The

cadets who are granted this scholarship will not be entitled to any other

financial assistance from the Government.

 (5)  UTTAR PRADESH GOVERNMENT SCHOLARSHIPSÐTwo

scholarships each of the value of Rs. 30.00 per month and an outfit stipend of

Rs. 400.00 are awarded to two cadets who belong to UTTAR PRADESH on

merit-cum-means basis and are tenable for a period of three years subject to

satisfactory performance by the cadets at National Defence Academy. Cadets

who are granted these Scholarships are not entitled to any other financial

assistance from Government.

            (6)  KERALA GOVERNMENT SCHOLARSHIPSÐOne merit

scholarship of the value of Rs. 480/- per annum for the entire period of

training at NDA, will be awarded by the State Government of Kerala to a

Cadet who is domiciled resident of the State of KERALA and who secures the

first position in the All India UPSC Entrance Examination to NDA

irrespective of the fact whether he has passed out from RIMC or from any of

the Sainik Schools in India. The financial position of a CadetÔs

father/guardian is not taken into consideration.

           

             (7)  BIHARI LAL MANDAKINI PRIZEÐThis is cash prize of Rs.

500.00 available for the best BENGALI boy in each Course of the Academy.

Application Forms are available with the Commandant, National Defence

Academy.

(8)  ORISSA GOVERNMENT SCHOLARSHIPSÐThese

scholarships, one for the Army, one for the Navy and the other for the Air

Force of the value of Rs. 80.00 each per month will be awarded by the

Government of Orissa to the cadets who are permanent residents of the State

of ORISSA. Two of these scholarships will be awarded on the basis of merit-

cum-means of the cadets whose parentÔs or guardianÔs income does not

exceed Rs. 5,000/- per annum and the other one will be given to the best cadet

irrespective of his parentÔs or guardianÔs income.

(9) State Government

West Bengal

*Income

Initial Lump sum

grant

Scholarship per

semester

36

Rs. 1,00,000/-(one time payment)

Rs.1.5 lakhs for all Offrs entry schemes

and/or the State Government or any other authority excepting scholarship or stipend received on merit.

(i) The income limit of the cadet’s parent/guardian shall not guardian shall not exceed Rs. 15,000/- pm (Rs. 1,80,000/- per annum).

Should be domicile of Nagaland State.

To the ward of Serving/Ex- servicemen (incl Ex/Serving Officer)

Should be domicile of Punjab State.

Award for successful candidates of Sikkim for all OfficersÔentry schemes.

Native/

*Table Income group

Low              –       up to Rs. 9000/-pm

Middle          –      Rs. 9001/- to Rs. 18000/-pm

High             –       Above 18000/-pm

(10) Goa      Rs. 1000/- per month during the

period of  training (subject to a  maximum of

24 months  or duration of the

course  whichever is less) &  one time outfit

allowance of Rs. 12,000/-

(ii) The income limit of those

belonging to  SC/ST/OBC

should   not         exceed Rs.

37,500/- per month (Rs. 4,50,000/-

per annum).

(iii) He should not be

receiving financial

assistance/freeship from any other

source.

(11) Nagaland Rs. 1,00,000/- one time payment

 

(12) Manipur  Rs. 1,00,000/- one time payment Should be domicile of Manipur

State.

(14) Gujarat Scholarship        Rs. 6,000/- per

annum

of

Domicile of Gujarat.

(15) Uttarakhand

(a) Pocket Money Rs. 250/- pm for NDA Cadets of Uttarakhand domicile is paid to

father/guardian of cadets (Ex-Servicemen/Widow, through respective Zilla Sainik

Kalyan Officers.)

(b) Cash Award of Rs. 50,000/- for NDA Cadets of Uttarakhand domicile is paid to

father/guardian of cadets through Directorate of Higher Education, Haldwani.

(16) Punjab

(17) State Govt.

Sikkim

(18) Fg Officer Anuj Nanchal Memorial Scholarship. Rs. 1500/- (One time payment) Ï

Second best all round Air Force cadet of VI term

(19) Pilot Officer Gurmeet Singh Bedi Memorial Scholarship. Pilot Officer Gurmeet

Singh Bedi Memorial Scholarship.  Rs. 1500/- (One time payment).  Best all round

Air Force cadet at the time of Passing Out of VI term.

37

 

(20)  HIMACHAL PRADESH GOVERNMENT SCHOLARSHIPÐ

Four scholarships will be awarded to cadets from HIMACHAL PRADESH.

The value of each scholarship is Rs. 30.00 per month during the first two years

of training and Rs. 48.00 per month during the third year of training. These

scholarships will be available to those cadets whose parentÔs income is below

Rs. 500.00 per month. No cadet in receipt of financial assistance from the

Government will be eligible for this scholarship.

(21)  TAMIL NADU GOVERNMENT SCHOLARSHIPÐhe

Government of Tamil Nadu has instituted at NDA one scholarship per course

of the value of Rs. 30/- per month plus an outfit allowance of Rs. 400/- (one

only during the entire period of cadetÔs training) to be awarded to a cadet

belonging to the State of TAMIL NADU whose parentÔs/guardianÔs monthly

income does not exceed Rs. 500/-. The application by an eligible cadet can be

made to the Commandant, National Defence Academy on their arrival.

(22) KARNATAKA GOVERNMENT SCHOLARSHIPSÐThe Govt.

of Karnataka has awarded scholarships to cadets from Karnataka State who

join the National Defence Academy.  The value of the scholarship shall be Rs.

1000/- (Rupees One thousand) per month and outfit allowance of Rs. 12000/-

in first term.

 (23) ALBERT EKKA SCHOLARSHIPÐThe Government of Bihar has

instituted at NDA 25 Merit Scholarships at Rs. 50/- per month for entire

period of six terms at the NDA and Rs. 650/- one time towards clothing and

equipment. The cadet awarded the above merit scholarship would not be

eligible for any other scholarship or financial assistance from the Government.

The application by an eligible cadet can be made to the Commandant,

National Defence Academy on their arrival.

              (24)  FG OFFICER DV PINTOO MEMORIAL SCHOLARSHIPÐGp

Capt. M Vashishta has instituted 3 scholarships of Rs. 125/- each per month at

NDA for one term to be awarded to the first three cadets in the order of merit

on completion of their first semester till end of second term. The cadets in

receipt of Govt. Financial Assistance will not be eligible for the above

scholarships. The application for eligible cadets can be made to the

Commandant, NDA on arrival.

 

(25)  FINANCIAL ASSISTANCE TO WARDS OF EX-

SERVICEMENÐMAHARASHTRA STATE

The wards of Maharashtrian ex-service officers/men who are

undergoing training as cadets at NDA will be given Rs. 50,000/- as one time

incentive.

The parents/guardians of the wards should submit their applications to their

respective Zilla Sainik Welfare Office alongwith the certificates obtained from

the Academy.  Terms and conditions governing these scholarships are

38

obtainable from the Commandant, National Defence Academy, Khadakwasla,

Pune Ï 411 023.

(26)  AWARD OF FINANCIAL ASSISTANCE TO CANDIDATES OF

HARYANA DOMICILE UNDER TRAINING AT NDA.  

The Haryana State Govt. has declared a cash award of Rs. 1,00,000/- (Rupees

one lakh) to every individual who successfully completes the training at

NDA/IMA/OTA and other Defence Academies of National Status and

domicile of State of Haryana.

(27) INCENTIVE GRANT TO CADETS DOMICILE OF UT,

CHANDIGARH UNDER TRAINING AT NDA.

Chandigarh Administration has introduced the scheme for grant of one time

incentive of Rs. 1,00,000/- (Rupees one lakh) to the cadets who are resident of

UT, Chandigarh and joined NDA .

5. Immediately after the selected candidates join the Academy, a preliminary

examination will be held in the following subjects:

(a) English;

(b) Mathematics;

(c) Science;

(d) Hindi.

The standard of the examination in the subjects at (a), (b) and (c) will not be

higher than that of the Higher Secondary Examination of an Indian University

or Board of Higher Secondary Education. The paper in the subject at (d) is

intended to test the standard attained by the candidate in Hindi at the time of

joining the Academy.

Candidates are, therefore, advised not to neglect their studies after the

competitive examination.

TRAINING

6. The selected candidates for the three services, viz., Army, Navy

and Air Force are given preliminary training both academic and physical for a

period of 3 years at the National Defence Academy which is an Inter-Service

Institution. The training during the first two and half years is common to the

cadets of three wings. All the cadets on passing out will be awarded degrees from

Jawaharlal Nehru University, Delhi as under :-

(a) Army Cadets. B.Sc./B.Sc. (Computer)/BA degrees.

(b) Naval Cadets.  All the Naval Cadets will be awarded B.Tech degree only on

completion of their training at NDA and Pre-Commissioning Training

Academy.

(c) Air Force Cadets. B.Sc./B.Sc (Computer).

*B.Tech., as applicable, will be awarded on completion of training at Pre-

Commissioning Training Academy.

The selected candidates of the Naval Academy will be given preliminary

training both academic and physical, for a period of 04 years at Indian Naval

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90,000/- (fixed)

Academy, Ezhimala. The cadets of 10+2 Cadet Entry Scheme will be awarded

a B. Tech Degree on successful completion of training.

7. On passing out from the National Defence Academy, Army Cadets

go to the Indian Military Academy, Dehra Dun, Naval Cadets to Indian Naval

Academy, Ezhimala and Air Force cadets to AFA, HYDERABAD.

8. At the I.M.A. Army Cadets are known as Gentlemen Cadets and are

given strenuous military training for a period of one year aimed at turning

officer capable of leading infantry Sub-units. On successful completion of

training Gentlemen Cadets are granted Permanent Commission in the rank of

Lt subject to being medically fit in “SHAPE” one.

9. The Naval cadets are selected for the Executive Branch of the Navy,

on passing out from the National Defence Academy and are given further

training at Indian Naval Academy, Ezhimala for a period of one year on

successful completion of which they are promoted to the rank of Sub

Lieutenants.

10. Air Force Cadets receive flying training for a period of 1đ years.

However, at the end of 1 year of training they are given provisional

Commission in the rank of Flying Officer. After successful completion of

further training of six months they are absorbed as permanent commissioned

officers on probation for a period of one year.

TERMS AND CONDITIONS OF SERVICES

11. Army Officers and equivalent ranks in Air Force and Navy

(i) Fixed Stipend for Cadet Training

Gentlemen cadets during the entire duration of training in Service

academies i.e. during training period at IMA and OTA shall be entitled to

stipend of Rs. 21,000/- p.m. (Rs. 15,600/- as pay in Pay Band plus Grade Pay

of Rs. 5,400/-).

(ii) Pay

(a) Rank    Pay Band (Rs.)

Lt to Maj     15,600Ð39,100/- (PB-3)

Lt Col to Maj Gen  37,400Ð67,000/- (PB-4)

Lt Gen HAG Scale   67,000/-(annual increment @3%)–79,000/-

HAG+ Scale*   75,500/-(annual increment @3%) 80,000/-

(*Admissible to 1/3rd of total strength of Lt Gens)

VCOAS/Army Cdr/Lt Gen (NFSG) 80,000/- (fixed)

COAS

(b) In addition to pay, Grade Pay will also be given as under :Ð

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Lt    Rs. 5,400/-

Capt   Rs. 6,100/-

Major   Rs. 6,600/-

Lt Col   Rs. 8,000/-

Col    Rs. 8,700/-

Brig    Rs. 8,900/-

Maj Gen  Rs. 10,000/-

(c) A Fixed sum of Rs. 6,000/- p.m. is also payable as Military Service Pay

(MSP) to the officers from the rank of Lt to Brig.

(iii) QUALIFICATION PAY AND GRANT

Officers possessing certain prescribed Qualification are

entitled to lumpsum Qualification Grant of Rs. 6,000/-,

9,000/-, 15,000/- or 20,000/- based on the qualification held by

them.

 

The Army Aviators (Pilots) serving in Army Aviation Corps are entitled to the

Qualification Pay, based on the Qualification held by them, as under :Ð

(i) Master Aviation InstructorÐRs. 500/- p.m.

(ii) Senior Aviation Instructor Class IÐRs. 400/- p.m.

(iii) Senior Aviation Instructor Class IIÐRs. 280/- p.m.

(iv) Aviators holding Master Green CardÐRs. 400/- p.m.

(v) Aviators holding Green Card Rs. 280/- p.m.

The Army Aviators (Pilots) serving in the Army Aviation Corps are

entitled to flying allowance as under :Ð

(a) Brig & above Rs. 10,500/-

(b) Maj to Col Rs. 14,000/-

(c) Capt             Rs. 11,000/-

(d) Lt             Rs. 9,000/-

 (iv) Allowances

In addition to pay, an officer at present receives the following

allowances :

(a) Dearness Allowances are admissible at the same rates and under

the same conditions as are applicable to the Civilian Gazetted Officers from

time to time.

(b) A kit maintenance allowance of Rs. 400/- p.m.

(c) Depending upon rank and area of posting, officer posted to Field

Areas will be eligible for compensatory Highly Active Field Area Allowance

at the rate of Rs. 6,780/- to Rs. 8,400/- p.m., Compensatory Field Area

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Allowance at the rate of Rs. 4,200/- to Rs. 5,200/- p.m. and Compensatory

Modified Field Area Allowance at the rate of Rs. 1,600/- to Rs. 2,000/- p.m.

(d) In addition to the Compensatory Field Areas Allowance, officers

posted to areas situated at a height of 9000 ft. and above are entitled for High

Altitude Allowance in the range of Rs. 1,060/- p.m. to Rs. 11,200/- p.m.

depending upon rank of the officer and place of posting.

 

(e) Uniform allowance : Initial allowance for one time kit @ Rs. 14,000/- and

Rs. 3,000/- for every three years.

(f) Transport allowance : Transport @ Rs. 3,200/- + DA thereon p.m. in A-

1/A class Cities and Rs. 1,600/- + DA thereon p.m. at other places shall be

admissible to officers.  

Note : In the case of allowances specific to Defence Forces, the rates of these

allowances have been further enhanced by 50% as Dearness Allowance has

gone up by 100%.

12. (a) Army Group Insurance Fund is a compulsory contributory

group scheme, which provides insurance cover for Rs. 15 Lac on payment of

one time non refundable premium of Rs. 6400/- for 3 years paid in advance in

lump sum by the cadets including Naval and Air Force Cadets of NDA from

the date of joining for Pre-commission training till completion of training at

NDA. In case of relegation, an additional premium of Rs. 1160/- per relegated

term will be paid immediately on occurrence. For those who are medically

boarded out of NDA on account of Disability, the cover provided is 50 per

cent of the insured amount for 100 per cent disability i.e. Rs.7.5 lac for 100 per

cent disability which is proportionately reduced to Rs.1.5 lakh for 20 per cent

disability. Cadets being boarded out with less than 20 per cent disability

during initial years of training will be given an ex-gratia grant of Rs. 50,000/-

and Rs. 1 lac for cadet invalided out with less than 20 per cent disability

during last year of training. Disability due to alcoholism, drug addiction and

due to the diseases of pre-enrolment origin will not qualify for disability

benefits and ex-gratia. In addition, a cadet withdrawn on disciplinary

grounds or as undesirable or voluntarily leaves the Academy will also not be

eligible for disability benefits and ex-gratia.

(b) At IMA when in receipt of stipend, the Gentlemen Cadets are

provided insurance cover of Rs. 75 lac with a monthly contribution of Rs.

5,000/- w.e.f. 01 October, 2016 as per main AGI scheme as applicable to

regular officers. Those who are medically boarded out of IMA on account of

disability, the cover  provided is Rs. 25 Lac for 100 per cent disability which is

proportionately reduced to Rs. 5 lac for 20 per cent and an ex-gratia grant of

Rs. 50,000/- for less than 20 per cent disability. Disability due to alcoholism,

drug addiction and due to the diseases of pre enrolment origin will not

qualify for disability benefits and ex-gratia. In addition, a cadet withdrawn on

disciplinary grounds or as undesirable or voluntarily leaves the Academy will

also not be eligible for disability benefits and ex-gratia.

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Army

Navy

Sub Lieutenant

Lieutenant Flight Lieutenant 02 Years

Lt. Commander

Captain (Time Scale)

Admiral Air Chief Marshal

Air Force Minimum Reckonable Commissioned Service required for Substantive Promotion

Flying Officer On Commission

Squadron Leader 06 years

Group Captain (Selection)

Group Captain (Time Scale)

13 years

15 years

26 years

On Selection

13. PROMOTIONAL AVENUES:

S.No.

(a) Lieutenant

(b) Captain

(c) Major

(d) Lieutenant Colonel Commander Wing

Commander

(e) Colonel(Selection) Captain

(Selection)

(f) Colonel

(Time Scale)

(g) Brigadier Commodore Air Commodore On Selection

(h) Major General Rear Admiral Air Vice Marshal On Selection

(i) Lieutenant General Vice Admiral Air Marshal On Selection

(j) General

14. RETIREMENT BENEFITS

         

Pension, gratuity and casualty pensionary award will be admissible in

accordance with the rules in force from time to time.

15. LEAVE

Leave will be admissible in accordance with the rules in force from

time to time.

***

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